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  • Posted by CircuitGuy 9 years, 5 months ago
    I wonder how long the police could pay someone to do something on the job before the courts would say the police were liable for the outcome. Suppose an absurd case of a large company with a small satellite office with a few employees. Suppose the gov't pays everyone in the office to do mostly law enforcement operations. The company is mismanaged and doesn't notice. It seems clear the gov't would be responsible for the actions of the people it's paying. This was just a little project, "Use your boss's truck to move some drugs." At what point does it become a big enough project that the gov't is responsible?
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