A Question.

Posted by ShimmerStarDarlin 12 years, 2 months ago to Philosophy
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Is there ever a time that the property of one become the property of all? An example: If an individual or company discovers the cure for cancer or aids does that belong to that one person or company or does it belong to the human race?


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  • Posted by khalling 12 years, 2 months ago
    two separate questions. second question: inventions belong to the inventor. but ownership rights are limited in time as in all property rights, technically. when their ownership rights expire, for instance "cure" becomes available to all mankind. for more information, please read Capitalism the Unknown Ideal, Ch. 11, Rand.

    1st question:"property of all" means really no one has property rights in it.
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  • Posted by overmanwarrior 12 years, 2 months ago
    I am fussing with an issue of this very nature right now. There is a zoning issue where a new grocery superstore wants to build a development that many people will enjoy, but the property owners who live in the area don't want it. Politics being what it is wants to bend the system around to serve the business. But I am siding with the residents. Their property has just as much value individually as the business who claims to be doing their work for the greater good.
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    • Posted by khalling 12 years, 2 months ago
      exactly. it is really crappy when the city will change the zoning law to commandeer private property. I have always found if the community wants the store bad enough they'll drive to a less "convenient" location.
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      • Posted by overmanwarrior 12 years, 2 months ago
        This is where I have some real trouble with people who think they are conservative but are only moochers off government in another way. They become nothing more than James Taggarts.
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