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  • Posted by freedomforall 9 years, 10 months ago
    This may be a very important step in states rights.
    If one researches court decisions a case can be built that federal law is foreign to state law, although the fedgov and its media lapdogs will deny it is valid.
    Granted, it will take a very courageous state governor and legislation to return the power of self government to the state and the sovereign people.
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  • Posted by RonC 9 years, 10 months ago
    The article asks the rhetorical question, "How could anyone object to ..." My observation is a progressive on a mission can rationalize anything.

    Point of fact: Has anyone else noticed the term "Progressive" is a misnomer? The politics of envy have not change, even a little bit, since William Jennings Bryant first championed the idea of how unfair it is for the rich and middle class to leave the rest behind.
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    • Posted by BobFreeman 9 years, 10 months ago
      YESS! Just as "liberal" means the opposite of its original pro-freedom derivation today, the term ':progressive" has also been hijacked & 'oppositized' by the State-controlled schools & media. Today "progressive" refers to the Regressive policies that are taking our society BACKWARD toward lasting war, poverty and servitude.

      Calling Statists "progressive' just aids the destruction of our language and our civilization.
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  • Posted by term2 9 years, 10 months ago
    Personally I would like all states to be able to set their own laws, and pretty much get rid of the control of the federal government. That way the states could compete with each other for residents and opportunities, which is the only way we get decent government. Federal government here under Obama has become arrogant and petulant and just does what it wants, regardless of the constitution
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  • Posted by $ Susanne 9 years, 10 months ago
    They will pass this... (inshallah <<giggles>> )... Montana is becoming a shining example that I wish the rest of the states (esp. mine, tho that is probably pretty unlikely) will follow
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  • Posted by Herb7734 9 years, 10 months ago
    Good for her. But, isn't it shameful that such a law even needs to be passed? Could never have been needed just a few years ago.
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    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
      Why is this needed?? If people wish to have their contracts decided under Martian law and they sue in Montana why shouldn't the Montana Courts apply Martian law?? And precisely what evil is this law intended to prevent? And when has it happened.
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      • Posted by $ 9 years, 10 months ago
        You keep talking about contract law. Sharia deals with a lot more than contracts. Do you agree that your wife should be stoned to death because she showed an ankle or wasn't covered head to toe? That is sharia.
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        • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
          The would be Montana law is not limited to criminal matters so the reference to the chaos this would bring to contract law is apt. Moreover, the issue of what substantive law to apply is frequently raised in contract and tort law and almost never in a criminal context. If your wife shows an ankle in Montana it is the Montana criminal statutes that apply, not sharia law. Do you disagree? Does any Montana court disagree? Has any Montana court ever disagreed? Again, why in the world is this law needed?
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          • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
            you can't contract to kill someone. You cannot contract to stone someone for breach. You cannot contract to steal. You cannot contract to sell a person into slavery. Sharia Law is fundamentally in conflict with Common Law and Contract Law which applies broadly beyond the US. Common law is based on reason, logic and evidence. Irrational revealed laws are in conflict with Common Law. That's why you should care.
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            • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
              No state, county or city in the United States has ever adopted Sharia law. And no court of competent jurisdiction has ever rested a decision upon it. Moreover, this proposed statute does not even mention Sharia law. It bans enforcement of any "foreign" law regardless of the parties' desires as expressed by contract. If the contract seeks to enforce a contract for a mob hit it will not be honored (and never has been). But why should it not enforce the parties' expressed wish for Delaware or French law to apply to interpretation of the terms of their contract?
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              • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
                I never suggested any state had. where did I say that?
                In the second case I cited, the judge dismissed the case based on the victim's behavior. that is not a proper application of US law
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                • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                  You didn't say it, Blarman did in this very thread. As to the second case, not being "a proper application of" the state's law is a ground for appeal, not a reason to enact a half baked statute.
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                  • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                    Please re-state what you think I did or did not say.
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                    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                      You stated that there are a variety of contracts that are not enforced under the common law as a matter of public policy. None of them apply here of course. Here the applicable public policy is that favoring the parties' right to choose what substantive law will apply to an interpretation of their contract. The proposed Montana law conflicts with that policy. There is no reported decision applying any of the worst elements of Sharia law, according to you, in lieu of applicable U.S. law.
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          • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
            Precisely because some courts are citing Sharia in preference over established State or Federal law. What this law clarifies is that judges are specifically prohibited from considering non-Montana or non-US statute. That would include UN resolutions not ratified as Treaties through the Senate - such as the recent Arms Trade laws that went into effect in Europe just before Christmas.
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            • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
              What court of record in the entire US has ever "cit[ed] Sharia in preference over established State or Federal law"? Be specific in your citation, please.
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              • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
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                • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                  The first case (involving the same guy who was a defendant in the protective order matter) concerns whether there was error in empaneling a jury around the time of the 9/11 attacks where the defendant was a Muslim. The defendant on appeal alleged it was improper to do so and the judge should have ferreted out potential bias against him with more voir dire. The appellate court rejected the appeal. The second case concerns remarks made by a trial judge to a plaintiff or victim in a trial concerning an alleged assault by a Muslim man who was offended by the Muslim zombie costume worn by the victim. The judge accused the victim of acting like a "doofus" in donning the costume. He did not apply Sharia law. In fact, the judge noted that under that law the victim would be prosecuted with potential severe punishment meted out. Nothing like that happened here.
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                  • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
                    in both cases the judge gave prejudice to the defendant's for their actions on the basis of their religion. my examples were not ruling using sharia law but giving deference to it. It would be highly unusual for a Christian to attack someone wearing a Jesus zombie costume, even if they found it incredibly offensive. that the judge would admonish the *victim* for putting himself at risk by wearing this costume is giving support to the defense of the defendant. you seem to just want to argue
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                    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                      Let's back up for a second. It was asserted that the justification for this proposed law was that "some courts are citing Sharia in preference over established State or Federal law." I doubted that was the case and asked for specific examples. In response you have given me purported examples where a trial judge did so. In neither case was that true. When I highlight that by referring to the actual facts of the case you have shifted to the position that "in both cases the judge gave prejudice to the defendant's for their actions on the basis of their religion." In the first case that is straight out false. In the second case (the zombie costume assault matter) you say the judge gave "deference" to Sharia law. That's a stretch. He merely cited to the existence of Muslim culture in asserting that the assailant was supposedly offended. You also say that "someone wearing a Jesus zombie costume" would not likely be attacked even if it was offensive. I plead ignorance on that score. I just don't know what religious zealots are likely to do when offended. As to wanting to argue, well this is a topic worth examining and, heavens, even worth arguing about. Crazy statutes like this, although unlikely ever to become law, sow confusion in the law and bring about adverse unexpected negative consequences.
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              • Posted by ObjectiveAnalyst 9 years, 10 months ago
                I saw this inquiry and it piqued my interest...
                I do not know if this fits your bill, but... how far this has actually gone I do not know. It looks like when sharia has been cited for the most part it has been overturned... so far.
                http://www.foxnews.com/us/2010/08/05/adv...
                And...
                http://usnews.nbcnews.com/_news/2012/01/...
                A google search using the keywords "american court cites sharia" turns out 58,500 results with many similar stories...
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                • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                  In the first case arising from Family Court, the judge was reversed. The court of record prohibited the lower court from considering the religious beliefs of the person subject to a protective order. This decision was correct and it didn't need a statute to reach its conclusion. The second case holds that a statute may not single out a particular religious law, Sharia. That's no doubt why the Montana statute is written so broadly to encompass any foreign law. Its overbreadth will be its undoing.
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                  • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                    Why is it overly broad by including foreign laws? The whole concept of sovereignty is the concept of self-rule. If that nation chooses to adopt laws already adopted by other nation-states into their own code, that's one thing, but having a judicial arm which looks outside that nation to another for legal precedent undermines sovereignty itself! That's the main point of laws like this: to preserve sovereignty and jurisdiction.

                    Islam is both a religious AND secular code at the same time. It can't exist simultaneously with the Constitution while maintaining equal validity, because BOTH systems claim the right to jurisdiction in a variety of cases. For order to be maintained, all parties within a nation must be beholden to one and only one system of legal governance. I really don't see this being that difficult of an issue to understand.
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                    • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
                      "Islam is both a religious AND a secular code" is only true because the Muzzies allow it to be true. The same was true for Catholicism for centuries, particularly in Rome and the Papal States of Italy. As I said elsewhere, the Islamic faith needs their own Martin Luther. Until they choose to reform themselves, we will be in a religious war with them. Not of our choosing, but of theirs.
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                      • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                        I agree that they are the ones choosing the war, but having read the Qu'ran, I'm not so sure I can agree with the first part at all. Islam is an all-encompassing doctrinal base very similar to the original Law of Moses. The difference is that the Law of Moses explicitly applied only to followers - ie Israelites and those who converted. Islam makes the very specific claim that ALL other law is subjugated by the Qu'ran - that it's very existence invokes a primacy of jurisdiction. And when those jurisdictional claims are then mortally imposed...

                        While I wish that some "Abdul" will come along and "reform" Islam, I'm not holding my breath. I think it will require something spectacularly convincing or outright obliteration to turn them from their ideological course.
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                        • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
                          Martin Luther was facing no such calamity.
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                          • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                            But Luther was also not alone. There was a sizable contingent of reformists and all pointed to the organization's foundational documents to support their dissent. To this point, I don't see any such movement growing within the Muslim population, nor do I see a doctrinal base of internal contradiction for a basis for such dissent.

                            I agree that it would be wonderful to see, I just don't see it happening as of the result of internal pressures within the Islamic faith. I'd love to be wrong, however.

                            And just between us, neither does the book of Revelation.
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      • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
        if they wish Martian law,, they should live on Mars.
        they can be my guest.... is this not designed to
        preclude the use of Sharia law in Montana? -- j

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        • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
          Regardless of intent, it foils all foreign choice of law agreements.
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          • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
            this seems to be an argument in favor of moral relativism, which is in conflict with Contract Law
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            • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
              Huh? It is an argument that legislatures should not pass laws that are over broad and bring about adverse unintended consequences. In this case, specifically, it is about a proposed Montana law which would void choice of law provisions which are commonly used, violate nobody's rights and express the intent of the parties to the contract. It is not in conflict with contract law, it is standard contract law to allow the parties to choose what substantive law to apply.
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              • Posted by khalling 9 years, 10 months ago
                "nullify any “court, arbitration or administrative agency ruling” that relies on any foreign law contrary to rights guaranteed to Montanans by the state or U.S. constitutions."
                Teh US Constitution is completely consistent with Common law. All state laws must be consistent with US Constitution. I will not discuss what actually happens, just what the law says. There is nothing inconsistent in this bill with the US Constitution. The point of the law is to push back against activist judges who are blatantly ignoring the Constitution. Give an example of an unintended consequence when the law is clear the US Constitution will trump?
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                • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                  You live in Montana. I live in Arizona (or France or on Mars). We contract for me to sell you a widget. In our written contract we agree that the law of Arizona (or France or Mars) applies. You pay me. I send you the widget. The widget fails in use immediately because of a design or manufacturing defect. You sue me for breach in Montana. Arizona (or french or martian) law provides for a 30 day warranty. You win in Court. The judge expressly relies on the 30 day provision of "foreign law." On appeal I argue that the goofy statute in question makes the trial court ruling "void" regardless of what we actually agreed to. I win on appeal. That's what I call an unintended consequence.
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                  • Posted by Technocracy 9 years, 10 months ago
                    Of course the fact the product did fail is not important is it?
                    You appeal the case anyway.

                    Confusion in the law set sail a long time ago, aided and abetted by lawyers at every turn.
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                    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                      The failure is important. Otherwise there would be no possible claim. But remember, no express warranty was given at the point of sale. Therefore, the doctrine of implied warranties applies. Those warranties are a matter of state law and vary. The point of the hypothetical was to underscore why it matters which state law applies and how the proposed Montana law would foil the parties' intent.
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                  • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                    One small difference here: Arizona isn't claiming to be able to stone someone to death because the part is faulty.

                    Contract law and criminal law are completely different matters. Contracts are between two independent parties and the legal system is only being used to arbitrate a dispute wherein "satisfaction" is the outcome. And as you pointed out in the example, both parties are explicitly agreeing on which set of law has jurisdiction in the matter.

                    Penal law deals with crimes - disputes between the public at large and the acts of individuals who contravene social norms established as law. The key to understand, however, is that the "public" - the "plaintiff" in a criminal case - has already agreed on which legal system holds jurisdiction in criminal matters: that of the US Constitution and where that is expressly barred, the individual State Constitutions. Sharia has no jurisdiction and this law is simply clarifying that.
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                    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                      The statute in question does not carve out contract or tort law at all. Under the statute, all court orders are "void" if premised on "foreign" law. That is the problem I'm trying to point out and which is being resisted so mightily in this forum.
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                      • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                        But a valid and sovereign legal system must of necessity reject the supremacy of claim of all other legal systems or it subjugates itself! That's the problem with accepting it in the first place: you are subordinating your own sovereignty! And YES, that includes contractual provisions as well as criminal.

                        In contract law, why do the parties go to court? For enforcement - strict performance or monetary satisfaction. But that assumes that the contract itself is enforceable AND that the legal body so petitioned maintains PRIMACY of jurisdiction. If you void either of these two conditions, the court's opinions similarly fail. What this bill establishes is supremacy and primacy of US and State Constitutions, holding ALL others as inferior.

                        In criminal law, the parties are inherently agreeing that the "law of the land" is precisely that: the law as established by the governing body of those citizens (in this case citizens of the United States residing in Montana) and NOT some foreign entity like the UN or any religious body. It's the reason why Iran ignores UN resolutions mandating it not pursue a nuclear weapons program. Iran views those "laws" or mandates as being inferior to its sovereign laws!
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                        • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                          In civil law we already have a system in this country where the sovereignty of the forum state law is not absolute in the way you suggest because we live in a federalist system. State courts, including those of Montana, are borrowing substantive law of other states daily and, of course, federal courts borrow substantive law of the forum state or some other state, or even or a foreign land, constantly. Our entire commercial system relies upon and assumes this fact. In recognition of it, entire law school courses teach choice of law principles. In many many cases the courts allow the parties to choose applicable law. The proposed Montana statute rides roughshod over those choices and commands that decisions based upon them be ignored as "void." As to the criminal arena, this is a non-problem. No matter how heated the rhetoric on this thread has become, no one has been able to cite a single reported appellate decision in the entire United States where a criminal conviction has been affirmed based upon the application of foreign law where a crime was committed in the U.S. So the Montana law is attempting to solve a non-problem while inviting significant mischief in the civil realm. I apologize to all in this forum who have misconstrued what I have said on this topic previously. It is no doubt my fault for failing to convey my view clearly.
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                          • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                            Now maybe we're in actuality saying the same thing, but maybe not. When you mention "borrowing", however, you continue to cite instances from systems all taking their primacy of law from the US Constitution - thus the SAME canon. State Constitutions are subordinate via the Supremacy Clause in areas where Federal Law is explicitly granted primacy, but preeminent in all others (Tenth Amendment). There is no jurisdictional quandary I can see (except what gets imposed by an overeager Federal judiciary). In the case of a US court citing UN statute or Sharia law, however, it does introduce the very significant issue of primacy and jurisdiction.

                            And no, our commercial system does not rely on foreign law to function. Again, contract enforcement is restricted by jurisdiction - US law has no reach outside our borders! All we can do is penalize _other_ activities (preferably of the offending entity) here in the United States as a penalty offset. A US court can not issue an enjoinder of specific performance against a commercial entity outside of the United States - all they can realistically do is incur a monetary penalty to be exacted through import fees, duties, penalties, or other mechanisms so as to render monetary satisfaction in lieu of specific performance. Or general embargos which entice the foreign nation to impose some remediation on the offending business so as to reduce harm on others within its jurisdiction. However, to do so it must embargo future commercial endeavors within the US. If the company stops doing business in the US, enforcement is effectively stymied.

                            As to whether or not a problem must exist before preemption measures may be undertaken, I would propose the following for consideration: Laws against murder are preemptive in nature so as to dissuade the behavior in the first place. Requiring a murder to take place before putting into place a law against such I think you will agree is not only ridiculous, but would result in a never-ending game of catch-up. To complicate that further, where common law - especially contract law - relies so heavily on precedent, it is very much worth our time to keep such precedents free and clear from the ambiguity and legal chaos resulting from a jurisdictional disagreement, wouldn't you agree?

                            So regardless of whether the law is reactive or proactive, it addresses the potential for a severe problem which has the potential to undermine sovereignty itself. Even if there were some factor involved that acted as a restraint on trade (which by-the-way I fail to see), I can't see any amount of trade being valuable enough to cede sovereignty over, but apparently we differ in that opinion.
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                            • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                              You are right, maybe we are saying the same thing. Let's see. First, in the civil realm, you are correct that U.S. law does not depend on foreign law to function. But if the parties agree on a non-fourm law they will enforce it. Examples would be the law of a "foreign" state or land or even a non-geographic specific law like Robert's Rules of Order or the rules of the American Aribitration Association. Your reference to the enforceability of U.S. state or federal judgments in foreign lands is correct, subject to treaty agreements. But so what? Your point about the futility of not passing a law against murder until one occurs sounds like the plot of the Mikado. Entertaining, but irrelevant. As to the good sense of avoiding "ambiguity and legal chaos" in the area of contract law, that is one of my points! There are hundreds of thousands if not millions of existing choice of laws provisions in U.S. contracts as we speak (credit card agreements, mortgage loan agreements, insurance agreements, etc.). To put the parties existing choice of law agreements in peril by passing 50 different "foreign law" statutes is not a good thing. At least I hope we can agree on that.

                              Second, what is the "potential for a severe problem" that we are talking about? Do you really think that any U.S. jurisdiction is on the cusp of adopting Sharia law? What is the evidence supporting that fear? What next, a law forbidding black helicopters and contrails? Seriously, I think the advocates for this law need to show a problem before they promote a "solution" that threatens some unintended negative consequences. Don't you think?

                              Finally, I think it ironic that on this site we should be arguing about the right of individuals to choose their forum for dispute resolution and the substantive rules by which their dispute would be judged versus the "sovereign" rights of the state governments.
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                              • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
                                "To put the parties existing choice of law agreements in peril by passing 50 different "foreign law" statutes is not a good thing."

                                The reason I brought up enforcement in the first place is because in contract law, that's what you are ultimately concerned with. By doing business with a company of another nation, you are already ceding the fact that if you do not sue them in their own country, enforcement of any judgement is going to be dubious. But one thing I thought about last night was the problem that businesses are trying to have it both ways here: they are trying to force their own legal agreements onto a court system that may not be familiar with the laws in play. That sounds to me like the business is creating their own problem and then trying to claim that the judiciary system is responsible!

                                When you take a case to court, you attempt to influence the venue so as to increase your chances of a preferred outcome, but it isn't an outcome of verdict only, but of verdict AND enforcement that is key. If you as a business ham-string yourself by choosing a venue which is positive but where enforcement is dubious, shouldn't you just acknowledge that up front when dealing with the risk of any potential contract? And what about in instances where the law specifically biases justice in favor of one's own nationality or religion, such as in the case of taqiyyah under Sharia? What about in China where bribes are the modus operandi of business?

                                Further, why would you want a judge or attorneys adjudicating or arguing a case according to laws they are not familiar with? What about in instances where the laws dictate the jury structure and composition as well as the rules - as in Sharia? To attempt to force these conditions upon an unprepared legal system does not seem wise to me.

                                I want to give business as much free rein as possible, but I think there must also be reasonable expectations on the business' side. If you want minimal government, that is going to come with the limitations of jurisdiction and enforcement. It can't be both ways.

                                "Do you really think that any U.S. jurisdiction is on the cusp of adopting Sharia law?"
                                Yes. England already has a problem (http://www.americanthinker.com/articles/...). Canada took the proactive stance Montana is taking (http://www.canadianlawsite.ca/sharia-law...). To say that it is not a danger is naive at best. Again, I go back to the problem of precedent - ESPECIALLY in contract law. It's MUCH better on the legal system to establish good precedent for use than to have muddied waters. "An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure" is (I think) a particularly apt metaphor in this instance.

                                "I think it ironic that on this site..."
                                Perhaps. I actually see it as of paramount importance. If we are to limit government's role and use the judiciary as our primary mode of dispute resolution via lawsuits, I think it behooves us to make sure the ground rules are stable. That means that we must have control over the rules, ie sovereignty. Businesses engage in business according to the rule "caveat emptor". That they should simultaneously expect security seems a bit two-sided to me.
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                                • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
                                  First, on the issue of enforcement of judgments, which you reference several times, it is rare that the losing party in a U.S. case has no assets that are reachable. I concede it does sometimes happen but, as you note, that is a risk knowingly taken by the parties. Within the U.S., of course, the states give full faith and credit to judgments from other jurisdiction (unless it involves gay marriage!) so it is merely an expense not an impediment to enforcement. This risk of non-enforcement is similar to the risk we all take when we contract with someone or some entity who may file bankruptcy and discharge an obligation to us. Hint: Don't loan any money to the Greek government right now.

                                  You seem to think it not "wise" for anyone to choose the substantive law of another forum. In fact it can be very wise if you are familiar with the law in that forum. Also, it eliminates confusion and litigation concerning which forum's substantive law will apply. It also creates uniformity if you are doing business in a number of different jurisdictions. For instance, American Express and Costco have an exclusive agreement regarding use of credit cards at Costco locations. Both companies do business in all states (I think). When disputes arise regarding card/credit use in individual locations the parties find it to their advantage to have a single forum's substantive law applied. Without knowing I'm willing to bet there is a choice of law provision in their agreement. They think it "wise." It should be up to them.

                                  You mention issues like jury composition and rules of procedure. These are procedural rules and cannot be borrowed by a choice of law provision. If venue is proper the rules of the forum control those issues. The choice of law provision only controls substantive law. I apologize if I had not made that clear.

                                  A word on precedent. A statue is not precedent, it is the law itself. Precedent is the doctrine whereby the common law is changed incrementally by court decisions with later decisions rely upon prior ones to fit new factual scenarios. Among other virtues, it allows predictability so that individuals may conform their behavior to the law knowing that it is unlikely to change radically. This statute is potentially disruptive because of its breadth (remember, it is not limited to Sharia law) and threatens existing contractual relationships previously relied upon by many parties. This goes against one of the virtues of law by precedent.
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                                  • blarman replied 9 years, 10 months ago
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        • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
          Will it preclude the applicability of Catholic Canon Law? How about Jewish Halakha? What about Masonic rituals, Boy Scout rules, etc.? This is a slippery slope that we don't want to step onto. Prohibit anything that is covered by governmental law, and prohibit any punishment that itself would be a violation of governmental law, but the rest needs to be protected under the first, fourth, and fifth amendments.
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  • Posted by $ MichaelAarethun 9 years, 10 months ago
    Does that include material changes to the Constitution passed without using the amendment procedure? Or is Washington DC considered on the US side of the border these days?

    Three cheers for Montana and the others. Next question do they have a recall law?
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  • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
    While I understand the intent, I'm not sure that this is practical in application. Beyond Jadaism and Catholicism, what about Masons, the Amish, or the numerous sororities/fraternities? Many organizations have their own rules. Are we to say that they are all defunct?
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    • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
      No, just that they have no ability to punish their members beyond standing within that organization. Muslims combine governmental authority with choice of religious affiliation. That combination doesn't work with the Constitution, which is what they're going after here.
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      • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
        I think that the Muslims would say that is all that they are doing.
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        • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago
          There is a huge difference between expulsion and beheading, flogging, stoning, etc., which is what I'm getting after. Islam places all of those as religious as well as secular punishments and goes so far as to justify those actions upon those who no longer want to be affiliated with them or who have no affiliation whatsoever! Conquering Muslims similarly impose them on those who are conquered, forcing them to "convert" to Islam or die. That kind of mixed enforcement is prohibited by the Freedom of Association clause in the First Amendment, which is why I concluded that it can not coexist with the Constitution.
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          • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 10 months ago
            Thanks for clarifying. When a group seeks to impose punishment where existing governmental law exists, that must be prohibited. When a group seeks to impose punishments where that punishment itself would be a violation of governmental law, that too must be prohibited. But where individuals voluntarily submit themselves to "law" that does not violate either of those stipulations, then that must be allowed. Otherwise, we end up in the situation that you identify with violations of freedom of speech and association. We can disagree with what they do, and are not required to subject ourselves to it, but we must allow them their rights to subject themselves to it.
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  • Posted by wiggys 9 years, 10 months ago
    "no brainer" if that were the case how would she have known that she wanted to write a new law to prohibit laws from another world to be used in the USA. so she must have used her brain to think of this law.
    that said if mohamed kills his daughter for doing something that is against the law from where he came (muslim ville) but he did it on USA soil he must be tried under the existing laws of the USA just like charlie brown would be.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 10 months ago
    Such a law could throw contracts into chaos. Almost all contracts between entities in different states or countries have a "Choice of Law" provision and a "Choice of Venue" provision. Let's say that my company, a Pennsylvania company, enters into a contract with a Saudi Arabian company for performance in Saudi Arabia. The Choice of Law, naturally, is Saudi law, which is Shariah law. The Choice of Venue provision, however, specifies that the party initiating the dispute may choose to try the case in its home country or in the home country of the other party. Thus, if I initiate suit against the Saudi company, I can choose to have the case heard in Pennsylvania. However, Saudi law would have to be applied to the issues in the case. If Pennsylvania had a law like that under question, I would have no choice but to initiate suit in Saudi Arabia, because Saudi law could not be applied to the case, and therefore, any resulting judgement against the Saudi company could not be enforced in Saudi Arabia. On the other hand, to have the case heard in Saudi Arabia would place me at a severe disadvantage, almost guaranteeing my defeat.
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    • Posted by slfisher 9 years, 10 months ago
      How is this different from doing business with any foreign country?
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      • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
        The difference Ranter is pointing out is that if the parties choose to have the foreign law apply to the interpretation of the contract it will be applied as desired in a US Court. However, under this crazy law being vetted in Montana, no Montana citizen would be able to bring suit in Montana citing the choice of law provision agreed upon by the parties. This would put Montanans at a great disadvantage. A significant unintended consequence.
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  • Posted by $ Thoritsu 9 years, 10 months ago
    This seems to be much broader than excluding sharia law.

    On one hand it is awesome to see states standing up for themselves like MT and AZ.

    One the other hand it is unfortunate to see laws have to be struck to guarantee the freedoms we are already supposed to be guaranteed.
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  • Posted by richrobinson 9 years, 10 months ago
    They are right. This should be a no brainer. I would be wary of anyone who opposes it.
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    • Posted by Non_mooching_artist 9 years, 10 months ago
      Truly. They have an agenda counter to what this nation is founded on.
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      • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
        I oppose it as ridiculous, unneeded and fraught with unintended consequences. What is my agenda?
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        • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
          avoiding the intrusion of sharia's forced subjugation
          of women, and the severing of limbs or digits for
          certain crimes, appear to be the drivers, it would
          seem -- so all we need to do is make an exception
          of the contract law provisions needed, right? -- j

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        • Posted by richrobinson 9 years, 10 months ago
          I don't know what your agenda is but I have been reading thru this thread and find your arguements to be nonsense. You appear to be a lawyer arguing just for arguements sake. Your example of widgets is ridiculous. What about the case involving the woman who was raped by her husband. He argued that as a Muslim she could not deny him sex when he demanded it. How would you determine that case? As I see it laws like this are simply telling Muslims and others if they live in the US they must abide by US law. I reject any arguement to the contrary.
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          • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
            Well at least I'm no longer accused of "an agenda counter to what this nation is founded on." Don't you find that characterization a bit off putting? Anyway, the widget hypothetical was requested by someone who could not envision what I meant by unintended consequences. Why do you think it "ridiculous"? In fact hundreds of thousands of contracts with choice of law provisions are entered into on a daily basis in this country and thousands of lawsuits result. Check out you credit card agreement. It may well have a choice of law provision. Choice of law disputes are much much more frequent than weird zombie costume assault cases, for instance. As to the rape case you refer to, the salient point is that it was decided against the guy asserting the religious defense. No anti-foreign law statute was or is needed to decide it. I'm not familiar with the law in that state, but since you ask I would decide the case the same way. Wouldn't you? Your last statement simply restates what is already the law as to everyone, not just Muslims, with very limited exceptions (diplomatic personnel). So tell me again why we need a new law.
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            • Posted by richrobinson 9 years, 10 months ago
              Similar laws are already in place in Louissianna, Kansas and Tennesee. If there are unintended consequences then it Montana can craft their law accordingly. The article stated that there have been about 100 cases decided using Sharia law, all of which were overturned on appeal. What were the lower court judges thinking? Why did they rule the way they did? This is our system working the way it was designed. The people disagree with those judges and the legislature makes it clear how they want them to proceed in future cases.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 10 months ago
    Disclosure: I am not a lawyer, but I am an architect/construction manager with an expertise in construction contracts, their interpretation and meaning. As I understand it, only American law applies in the United States. That having been said, contracting parties may select the law they wish applied to the contract, and disputes under that contract that are heard in US courts would be judged under the law chosen in the contract. Judges may consider any body of law they with in explaining their decisions, but must apply US law and/or the law selected in the contract. What this law seeks to do is to ban judges from applying principles of non-US law in forming their decisions. That throws a monkey wrench into all international contracting.

    In the United States, the Catholic Church maintains courts of Roman Catholic Canon Law to hear matters under Canon Law - like Catholic annulment of marriage, disputes between a priest and his bishop, etc. Jews have similar bodies that consider matters in the Jewish faith that are subject to Jewish law -- marriage, divorce, conversion, etc. These courts do not interfere with US law or with the application of US law. They affect only those who agree to be bound by them. Why should Muslims not be afforded the same privilege? A Muslim group in Texas has instituted the first Shariah court in the US, designed to hear matters that, for those who accept the jurisdiction of Shariah law, are subject to Shariah law. I see nothing wrong with that, provided that it be understood that the findings of the court are not enforceable under the law of the place.
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    • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
      the aspects of sharia which are prompting this
      attempt to ban it ... appear to be the interpersonal
      things like subjugation of women ... contract law
      within sharia has not been publicized, has it? -- j

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  • Posted by $ allosaur 9 years, 10 months ago
    Alabama done beat Montana fer thet thar historic screw ther Sharia, y'all.
    Some state done beat Bama first? Ah dunno.
    Please scuz while ah goes ter cling to muh Bible n' muh guns.
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  • Posted by sumitch 9 years, 10 months ago
    I wonder how much of sharia law is the same as ours? Could it be that someone is tying sharia law into legitimate U. S. law?
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    • Posted by woodlema 9 years, 10 months ago
      You want to know how similar. Read this. From the Muslims themselves.
      http://www.islamicsupremecouncil.org/und...
      Here are the fundamental tenets of Sharia:

      he Shariah protects these necessities in two ways: firstly by ensuring their establishment and then by preserving them.

      Religion: To ensure the establishment of religion, Allah Most High has made belief and worship obligatory. To ensure its preservation, the rulings relating to the obligation of learning and conveying the religion were legislated.

      Life: To ensure the preservation of human life, Allah Most high legislated for marriage, healthy eating and living, and forbid the taking of life and laid down punishments for doing so.

      Intellect: Allah has permitted that sound intellect and knowledge be promoted, and forbidden that which corrupts or weakens it, such as alcohol and drugs. He has also imposed preventative punishments in order that people stay away from them, because a sound intellect is the basis of the moral responsibility that humans were given.

      Lineage: marriage was legislated for the preservation of lineage, and sex outside marriage was forbidden. Punitive laws were put in placed in order to ensure the preservation of lineage and the continuation of human life.

      Wealth: Allah has made it obligatory to support oneself and those one is responsible for, and placed laws to regulate the commerce and transactions between people, in order to ensure fair dealing, economic justice, and to prevent oppression and dispute.

      Needs and Comforts: Needs and comforts are things people seek in order to ensure a good life, and avoid hardship, even though they are not essential. The spirit of the Shariah with regards to needs and comforts is summed up in the Qur’ān,

      People should red and study Sun Tsu and the Art of War.
      "Know your enemy and know yourself and you will always be victorious."

      Unless you read and understand from their perspective you cannot even begin to fathom the pure EVIL of the basic fundamental COMMANDS within Islam.

      People in this country are in for a VERY rude awakening if we fail to protect OUR constitution and OUR laws.

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      • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
        one of the most interesting provisions came out
        in the news last week -- the fact that the "Qur’ān"
        requires that honesty be modulated in order to
        achieve the required results. . . the ends justify the
        means, in other words. . . that is pure Democrat
        ethics, from my experience. -- j

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      • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
        My advice to those who don't like Sharia law is to avoid living in a state that has adopted that law. Oh, that's right, there are no such states. And there is absolutely no movement that I know of in any state to amend the state constitution to adopt Sharia law. And nobody on this site has been able to cite to a single court decision in any jurisdiction applying sharia law in any way that supplants state or federal law. This is the biggest non-issue I've seen in a long time.
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        • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
          ja, we are scared by the social crap which we hear
          about sharia law. . . and, also, things like the ends
          justifying the means -- not contracts, unless my
          adversary would like to cut off my thumb because
          I grabbed his daughter from the path of a truck,
          saving her life. . . and the artificial graciousness
          currently being given to Islam gives rise to that fear. -- j

          p.s. it seems difficult to tell whether BHO is Shiite
          or Christian, most days.......

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          • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
            And where is the "social crap" about Sharia law emanating from? Would that be Fox News? Who caers about Obama's religious beliefs? And, by the way, nobody has had their thumbs cut off or advocated for doing so in any U.S. Court. If I am wrong about that, cite the reported case, please.
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            • Posted by johnpe1 9 years, 10 months ago
              the "social crap" is being enforced in many Sharia
              law countries ... stonings for adultery, e.g.

              BHO's religious beliefs tend to guide current
              u.s. foreign policy.

              I have a Christian friend from whose thumb was
              cut off for some strange reason -- mostly that
              he is Christian, I believe.

              the encroachment of foreign or international law,
              on gun ownership as another example, scares
              many of us here. -- j

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  • Posted by $ blarman 9 years, 10 months ago in reply to this comment.
    "First..."

    I agree with everything you say here.

    "You seem to think..."

    I merely pointed out the pitfalls that come from suing in a venue that may not necessarily have final jurisdiction. (FYI - Costco just dumped AmEx and went with Mastercard, but again, this is all US-based. If you want to make your point, you really need to cite an extra-US case.) I do agree that the choice should be up to them, but that they also have the responsibility of going in with their eyes wide open and both parties are benefited by a stable legal environment. If I am a judge and I start citing Nigerian tribal law in a US Court, neither party is going to be very happy with me - unless one is Nigerian.

    "You mention..."

    There is a reason why the US Constitution mandates a "jury of peers" and the right to confront one's accuser. Those provisions do not necessarily exist in other nations' laws. Sharia itself specifies a certain court makeup (no females) and certain rules (must be at least three witnesses, etc.). While I understand what you are trying to say, it is inconsistent to claim simultaneously that venue is not subject to the rules even when the laws are. It is the entire legal system that must be consistent.

    "A word on precedent..."

    True, but in contract law, statute is very rarely present to rely on, unlike in criminal law. Almost all contract law is based on precedent - thus the establishment of such should not be taken lightly.

    I understand your concern about the potential disruption to existing contract relationships and agree that it is a legitimate concern. However, I weigh it in comparison to the concepts of #1 sovereignty and #2 legal consistency (including precedent) and look at what would be more disruptive: suddenly having to worry about unknown laws being thrown in the mix in a legal preceding, or being locked into a known set of rules. I choose the stability.
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    • Posted by jabuttrick 9 years, 10 months ago
      Thank you very much for your thoughts. This has been a fruitful exchange of ideas. I am aware of the current Costco/Amex relationship. There might well be litigation. If so, the choice of law provision will be enforced. As to contract law being based on precedent, remember that the various statutes of limitation and the entire Uniform Commercial Code are statutory. In any event, thank you again for this exchange. It made me think and I appreciate that greatly.
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